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CBSE Board Examination 2025 · Section A · 1 mark

Q18: Graph of the inverse of the cosine graph

The question

The graph of a trigonometric function is as shown. Which of the following will represent graph of its inverse ?

Y −π/2 π/2 π

(A)

−π/2 π/2 0 1 −1

(B)

−π/2 π/2 0 1 −1

(C)

π π/2 −1 1 0

(D)

π π/2 0
Exam answer

The graph shown is y=cos⁡xy = \cos x (value 1 at x=0x = 0⁠, zero at ±π2\pm\frac{\pi}{2}⁠, value −1-1 at π\pi⁠).

Why?

Match the key points: the highest point is on the y-axis (cos⁡0=1\cos 0 = 1⁠), the curve crosses the x-axis at ±π2\pm\frac{\pi}{2}⁠, and the lowest point is at π\pi (cos⁡π=−1\cos\pi = -1⁠). A sine graph would pass through the origin instead.

On [0,π][0, \pi]⁠, cos⁡x\cos x is one-one and takes every value in [−1,1][-1, 1]⁠, so

cos⁡−1:[−1,1]→[0,π]\cos^{-1} : [-1, 1] \to [0, \pi]
Why?

Only a one-one and onto function has an inverse. On the whole real line cos repeats its values, so we restrict it to [0,π][0, \pi]⁠, the principal branch. There it falls steadily from 1 to −1-1⁠.

For the inverse, the domain and range swap places.

Its inverse y=cos⁡−1xy = \cos^{-1}x has domain [−1,1][-1, 1] and range [0,π][0, \pi]⁠. It decreases and passes through (−1,π)(-1, \pi)⁠, (0,π2)(0, \frac{\pi}{2}) and (1,0)(1, 0)⁠.

Why?

The graph of an inverse is the mirror image of the original in the line y=xy = x⁠, so every point (a,b)(a, b) becomes (b,a)(b, a)⁠:

(0,1)→(1,0)(π2,0)→(0,π2)(π,−1)→(−1,π)\begin{aligned} (0, 1) &\to (1, 0) \\ (\tfrac{\pi}{2}, 0) &\to (0, \tfrac{\pi}{2}) \\ (\pi, -1) &\to (-1, \pi) \end{aligned}

(A) and (B) take negative values, and (D) continues beyond x=±1x = \pm 1⁠. Only (C) matches.

Answer: (C) the graph of y=cos⁡−1xy = \cos^{-1}x

Where this comes from

Chapter 2, Inverse Trigonometric Functions: Graph of cos⁻¹x.

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