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CBSE Sample Paper 2026-27 · Section B · 2 marks

Q22: If y=sin⁡(x+y)y = \sin(x + y) and dydx=0\frac{dy}{dx} = 0⁠, prove that y=±1y = \pm 1

The question

If y=sin⁡(x+y)y = \sin(x + y) and dydx=0\dfrac{dy}{dx} = 0⁠, then prove that y=±1y = \pm 1⁠.

Exam answer

Differentiating y=sin⁡(x+y)y = \sin(x + y) w.r.t. xx⁠,

dydx=cos⁡(x+y)(1+dydx)\frac{dy}{dx} = \cos(x + y)\left(1 + \frac{dy}{dx}\right)
Why?

Use the chain rule, with u=x+yu = x + y inside the sine:

ddxsin⁡u=cos⁡u⋅dudx\frac{d}{dx}\sin u = \cos u\cdot\frac{du}{dx}

Here dudx=1+dydx\frac{du}{dx} = 1 + \frac{dy}{dx}⁠.

Watch out: yy depends on xx⁠, so the derivative of yy is dydx\frac{dy}{dx}⁠, not 0.

⇒ dydx−cos⁡(x+y)dydx=cos⁡(x+y)\begin{aligned} \Rightarrow\ &\frac{dy}{dx} - \cos(x + y)\frac{dy}{dx} \\ &\quad = \cos(x + y) \end{aligned} ⇒ dydx(1−cos⁡(x+y))=cos⁡(x+y)\begin{aligned} \Rightarrow\ &\frac{dy}{dx}\big(1 - \cos(x + y)\big) \\ &\quad = \cos(x + y) \end{aligned}
Why?

Open the bracket, move the dydx\frac{dy}{dx} term to the left, and take dydx\frac{dy}{dx} out as a common factor.

Write cc for cos⁡(x+y)\cos(x + y) to keep the lines short:

dydx=c(1+dydx)dydx=c+cdydxdydx−cdydx=cdydx(1−c)=c\begin{aligned} \frac{dy}{dx} &= c\left(1 + \frac{dy}{dx}\right) \\ \frac{dy}{dx} &= c + c\frac{dy}{dx} \\ \frac{dy}{dx} - c\frac{dy}{dx} &= c \\ \frac{dy}{dx}(1 - c) &= c \end{aligned}

As dydx=0\frac{dy}{dx} = 0⁠, this gives cos⁡(x+y)=0\cos(x + y) = 0⁠.

Why?

Put dydx=0\frac{dy}{dx} = 0⁠: the left side is 0×(1−cos⁡(x+y))=00 \times \big(1 - \cos(x + y)\big) = 0⁠. So the right side, cos⁡(x+y)\cos(x + y)⁠, must also be 0.

Since sin⁡2(x+y)+cos⁡2(x+y)=1\sin^2(x + y) + \cos^2(x + y) = 1⁠,

sin⁡2(x+y)=1⇒ sin⁡(x+y)=±1\begin{aligned} &\sin^2(x + y) = 1 \\ \Rightarrow\ &\sin(x + y) = \pm 1 \end{aligned}
Why?

With cos⁡(x+y)=0\cos(x + y) = 0⁠, the identity gives sin⁡2(x+y)=1−0=1\sin^2(x + y) = 1 - 0 = 1⁠.

sin⁡2(x+y)=1−cos⁡2(x+y)=1−(0)2=1−0=1\begin{aligned} \sin^2(x + y) &= 1 - \cos^2(x + y) \\ &= 1 - (0)^2 \\ &= 1 - 0 = 1 \end{aligned}

A square equal to 1 has two square roots, +1+1 and −1-1⁠. Keep both.

Finally sin⁡(x+y)\sin(x + y) is yy itself, by the given equation.

∴ y=sin⁡(x+y)=±1\therefore\ y = \sin(x + y) = \pm 1⁠. Hence proved.

Where this comes from

Chapter 5, Continuity and Differentiability: Implicit differentiation.

Question type: Implicit

How to spot it: click to see

Type 5. Implicit: xx and yy mixed in one equation

Spot it: an equation such as x2+xy+y2=100x^2 + xy + y^2 = 100 that you cannot easily solve for yy⁠.

Here: yy appears on both sides of y=sin⁡(x+y)y = \sin(x + y)⁠: differentiate, and the inside x+yx + y gives 1+dydx1 + \frac{dy}{dx}⁠. With dydx=0\frac{dy}{dx} = 0⁠, cos⁡(x+y)=0\cos(x + y) = 0⁠, so sin⁡(x+y)=±1\sin(x + y) = \pm1⁠.

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