Exam answer
Differentiating y=sin(x+y) w.r.t. x,
dxdy=cos(x+y)(1+dxdy)
Why?
Use the chain rule, with u=x+y inside the sine:
dxdsinu=cosu⋅dxdu
Here dxdu=1+dxdy.
Watch out: y depends on x, so the derivative of y is dxdy, not 0.
⇒ dxdy−cos(x+y)dxdy=cos(x+y)
⇒ dxdy(1−cos(x+y))=cos(x+y)
Why?
Open the bracket, move the dxdy term to the left, and take dxdy out as a common factor.
Write c for cos(x+y) to keep the lines short:
dxdydxdydxdy−cdxdydxdy(1−c)=c(1+dxdy)=c+cdxdy=c=c
As dxdy=0, this gives cos(x+y)=0.
Why?
Put dxdy=0: the left side is 0×(1−cos(x+y))=0. So the right side, cos(x+y), must also be 0.
Since sin2(x+y)+cos2(x+y)=1,
⇒ sin2(x+y)=1sin(x+y)=±1
Why?
With cos(x+y)=0, the identity gives sin2(x+y)=1−0=1.
sin2(x+y)=1−cos2(x+y)=1−(0)2=1−0=1
A square equal to 1 has two square roots, +1 and −1. Keep both.
Finally sin(x+y) is y itself, by the given equation.
∴ y=sin(x+y)=±1. Hence proved.
Where this comes fromChapter 5, Continuity and Differentiability: Implicit differentiation.
Question type: Implicit
How to spot it: click to see
Type 5. Implicit: x and y mixed in one equation
Spot it: an equation such as x2+xy+y2=100 that you cannot easily solve for y.
Here: y appears on both sides of y=sin(x+y): differentiate, and the inside x+y gives 1+dxdy. With dxdy=0, cos(x+y)=0, so sin(x+y)=±1.
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