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Chapter 7 · Integrals

Exercise 7.10 · Q19: ∫0afg dx=2∫0af dx\int_0^a fg\,dx=2\int_0^a f\,dx

Exercise 7.10Properties of definite integrals (P4) · Section 7.10
The question

By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integrals in Exercises 1 to 19.

19. Show that ∫0af(x)g(x) dx=2∫0af(x) dx\displaystyle\int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx = 2\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx⁠, if ff and gg are defined as f(x)=f(a−x)f(x) = f(a - x) and g(x)+g(a−x)=4g(x) + g(a - x) = 4⁠.

Exam answer

Here ff and gg are taken to be continuous on [0,a][0, a]⁠.

Let I=∫0af(x)g(x) dx  …(i)\text{Let } I = \int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx\;\ldots(\text{i})

Using ∫0ah(x) dx=∫0ah(a−x) dx\displaystyle\int_0^a h(x)\,dx = \int_0^a h(a - x)\,dx⁠,

I=∫0af(a−x) g(a−x) dxI = \int_0^{a} f(a - x)\,g(a - x)\,dx

Given f(a−x)=f(x)f(a - x) = f(x) and g(a−x)=4−g(x)g(a - x) = 4 - g(x)⁠. So

I=∫0af(x)(4−g(x)) dx=4∫0af(x) dx−∫0af(x)g(x) dx=4∫0af(x) dx−I[by (i)]\begin{aligned} I &= \int_0^{a} f(x)\big(4 - g(x)\big)\,dx \\ &= 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx \\ &\quad - \int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx \\ &= 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx - I\quad[\text{by (i)}] \end{aligned} ⇒ 2I=4∫0af(x) dx\Rightarrow\ 2I = 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx

∴ I=2∫0af(x) dx=RHS\therefore\ I = 2\displaystyle\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx = \text{RHS}⁠. Hence proved.

Want the reason behind every step, the basics and the checks?

The one idea this problem is built on

P4 replaces xx by a−xa - x⁠. That leaves ff unchanged (by the first condition) and turns g(x)g(x) into g(a−x)=4−g(x)g(a - x) = 4 - g(x) (by the second). So the integral II of fgfg equals the integral of f⋅(4−g)f\cdot(4 - g)⁠, which is 4∫f−I4\int f - I⁠. Solving for II gives the result. In words: gg and its mirror image average to 2 everywhere, and ff cannot tell xx from a−xa - x⁠, so on average gg acts like the constant 2.

Given, to show, and the plan
Given
Functions ff and gg⁠, continuous on [0,a][0, a] (as the integrals require), with f(x)=f(a−x)f(x) = f(a - x) and g(x)+g(a−x)=4g(x) + g(a - x) = 4 for every xx in [0,a][0, a]⁠.
To show
∫0af(x)g(x) dx=2∫0af(x) dx\displaystyle\int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx = 2\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx⁠.
Plan
(1) Name the integral II⁠. (2) Apply P4. (3) Use both conditions. (4) Solve for II⁠. (5) Check on two concrete examples. (6) Show the condition on gg cannot be dropped.

Basics you need

1Property P4 (Section 7.10)

∫0ah(x) dx=∫0ah(a−x) dx\int_0^a h(x)\,dx = \int_0^a h(a - x)\,dx for any hh continuous on [0,a][0, a]⁠. Lesson: properties of definite integrals

2Linearity of the integral

∫0a(4f−fg) dx\int_0^a (4f - fg)\,dx =4∫0af dx−∫0afg dx= 4\int_0^a f\,dx - \int_0^a fg\,dx⁠. Basics: area as a sum of thin strips

3What the conditions mean for the graphs

f(a−x)=f(x)f(a - x) = f(x)⁠: the graph of ff is symmetric in the line x=a2x = \frac{a}{2}⁠. g(x)+g(a−x)=4g(x) + g(a - x) = 4⁠: the graph of gg is unchanged by a half turn about (a2,2)(\frac{a}{2}, 2)⁠. Basics: symmetry and mirror images

Solution

  1. Name the integral

    Let

    I=∫0af(x)g(x) dx.I = \int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx .

    Since ff and gg are continuous on [0,a][0, a]⁠, so is their product, and II is a definite (finite) number.

    The question does not say so, but integrals over [0,a][0, a] only make sense in this book for functions continuous on [0,a][0, a] (Remark (iv) after Theorem 2). We need II finite in Step 4, where we move II from one side of an equation to the other.
    Products of continuous functions are continuous (Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1).
  2. Apply P4 to the product

    P4 with h(x)=f(x)g(x)h(x) = f(x)g(x) replaces every xx by a−xa - x⁠:

    I=∫0af(a−x) g(a−x) dx.I = \int_0^{a} f(a - x)\,g(a - x)\,dx .
    P4 holds for every continuous function on [0,a][0, a]⁠; the product fgfg is one (Step 1). We use it because both given conditions are statements about f(a−x)f(a - x) and g(a−x)g(a - x)⁠, so we want those expressions to appear.
    P4, Section 7.10. Lesson: properties
  3. Use the two conditions

    The first condition gives f(a−x)=f(x)f(a - x) = f(x)⁠. The second, rearranged, gives g(a−x)=4−g(x)g(a - x) = 4 - g(x)⁠. Substituting both:

    I=∫0af(x) (4−g(x)) dx=4∫0af(x) dx−∫0af(x)g(x) dx=4∫0af(x) dx−I.\begin{aligned}I &= \int_0^{a} f(x)\,\big(4 - g(x)\big)\,dx \\ &= 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx - \int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx \\ &= 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx - I .\end{aligned}
    Both conditions hold for every xx in [0,a][0, a]⁠, so they can be substituted inside the integral at every point. Splitting the integral of a difference and taking out the constant 4 are the linearity properties of the integral. The last integral is the original II again: the integral has reproduced itself.
    g(x)+g(a−x)=4g(x) + g(a - x) = 4 is the same as g(a−x)=4−g(x)g(a - x) = 4 - g(x)⁠. Linearity: Section 7.2.1, Properties (III) and (IV).
  4. Solve for II

    Add II to both sides of I=4∫0af(x) dx−II = 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx - I⁠:

    2I=4∫0af(x) dx,2I = 4\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx ,

    and divide by 2:

    ∫0af(x)g(x) dx=2∫0af(x) dx.\int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx = 2\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx .

    This is what we had to show. The proof used only P4 and the two conditions, so it holds for every such pair f,gf, g and every aa⁠.

    The steps are reversible algebra on finite numbers (Step 1), so the identity follows. Note that nothing was assumed about gg beyond the stated condition: gg need not be symmetric itself.
    Solving I=c−II = c - I for a number II⁠: I=c2I = \frac{c}{2}⁠.
  5. Check the identity on two examples

    Example 1: a=πa = \pi⁠, f(x)=sin⁡xf(x) = \sin x⁠, g(x)=2+cos⁡xg(x) = 2 + \cos x⁠. Conditions: sin⁡(π−x)=sin⁡x\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x⁠, and g(x)+g(π−x)g(x) + g(\pi - x) =4+cos⁡x−cos⁡x=4= 4 + \cos x - \cos x = 4⁠. Then

    ∫0πsin⁡x (2+cos⁡x) dx=2∫0πsin⁡x dx+[sin⁡2x2]0π=2⋅2+0=4,\begin{aligned}&\int_0^{\pi}\sin x\,(2 + \cos x)\,dx \\ &= 2\int_0^{\pi}\sin x\,dx + \left[\frac{\sin^2 x}{2}\right]_0^{\pi} \\ &= 2 \cdot 2 + 0 = 4,\end{aligned}

    and 2∫0πsin⁡x dx=2⋅2=42\int_0^{\pi}\sin x\,dx = 2 \cdot 2 = 4⁠. Both sides equal 4.

    Example 2: a=3a = 3⁠, f(x)=x2(3−x)2f(x) = x^2(3 - x)^2⁠, g(x)=2+ex−e3−xg(x) = 2 + e^x - e^{3 - x}⁠. Conditions: f(3−x)=(3−x)2x2=f(x)f(3 - x) = (3 - x)^2x^2 = f(x)⁠, and g(x)+g(3−x)=4g(x) + g(3 - x) = 4 because the exponentials cancel. Numerically, ∫03f(x)g(x) dx=16.2\int_0^3 f(x)g(x)\,dx = 16.2 and 2∫03f(x) dx=2×8.1=16.22\int_0^3 f(x)\,dx = 2 \times 8.1 = 16.2⁠.

    x y O π/2 π 1 2 3 (π/2, 2) green: f(x) = sin x, symmetric about x = π/2 blue: g(x) = 2 + cos x; dashed violet: g(π − x) = 4 − g(x) g(x) and g(π − x) always add to 4 (average height 2)
    Example 1. f=sin⁡xf = \sin x (green) is symmetric in x=π2x = \frac{\pi}{2}⁠. g=2+cos⁡xg = 2 + \cos x (blue) and its mirror image g(π−x)g(\pi - x) (dashed violet) add to 4 at every xx⁠: the graph of gg is unchanged by a half turn about (π2,2)(\frac{\pi}{2}, 2)⁠.
    A general proof is complete on its own, but a numerical check catches algebra slips. In Example 1, ∫0πsin⁡xcos⁡x dx=0\int_0^{\pi}\sin x\cos x\,dx = 0 is exactly the part of gg that is antisymmetric about π2\frac{\pi}{2} cancelling out. In Example 2, ∫03x2(3−x)2 dx=3530=8.1\int_0^3 x^2(3 - x)^2\,dx = \frac{3^5}{30} = 8.1⁠.
    ∫sin⁡xcos⁡x dx=sin⁡2x2+C\int\sin x\cos x\,dx = \frac{\sin^2 x}{2} + C (substitution t=sin⁡xt = \sin x⁠). Basics: substitution
  6. The condition on gg is needed

    Keep a=πa = \pi and f(x)=sin⁡xf(x) = \sin x⁠, but take g(x)=xg(x) = x⁠. Now g(x)+g(π−x)=πg(x) + g(\pi - x) = \pi⁠, not 4. Integration by parts gives

    ∫0πxsin⁡x dx=[−xcos⁡x+sin⁡x]0π=π,\int_0^{\pi} x\sin x\,dx = \Big[-x\cos x + \sin x\Big]_0^{\pi} = \pi ,

    while 2∫0πsin⁡x dx=42\int_0^{\pi}\sin x\,dx = 4⁠. Since π≠4\pi \ne 4⁠, the identity fails without the condition.

    The same proof with g(x)+g(a−x)=kg(x) + g(a - x) = k gives ∫0afg dx=k2∫0af dx\int_0^a fg\,dx = \frac{k}{2}\int_0^a f\,dx⁠. Here k=πk = \pi⁠: π2×2=π\frac{\pi}{2} \times 2 = \pi⁠, which matches. The number 4 in the question is just the case k=4k = 4⁠.
    Integration by parts (Section 7.6) with xx as the first function and sin⁡x\sin x as the second (ILATE: algebraic before trigonometric), since xx becomes simpler when differentiated and ∫sin⁡x dx=−cos⁡x\int\sin x\,dx = -\cos x⁠. Lesson: integration by parts
Result

If f(a−x)=f(x)f(a - x) = f(x) and g(x)+g(a−x)=4g(x) + g(a - x) = 4 on [0,a][0, a] (with f,gf, g continuous), then ∫0af(x)g(x) dx=2∫0af(x) dx.\int_0^{a} f(x)g(x)\,dx = 2\int_0^{a} f(x)\,dx . (This is a "show that" question; the answer key gives no entry for it.)

Check it with numbers

Numerical integration for Example 1 gives 4.0000000000004.000000000000 on both sides; for Example 2, 16.20000000000016.200000000000 on both sides, with ∫03f dx=8.100000000000\int_0^3 f\,dx = 8.100000000000⁠.

For the counterexample, ∫0πxsin⁡x dx≈3.141593\int_0^{\pi} x\sin x\,dx \approx 3.141593 (that is, π\pi⁠) while the right side is 4.

Common mistakes
  1. Applying P4 to ff and gg separately, as if ∫fg\int fg were ∫f⋅∫g\int f \cdot \int g⁠. P4 is applied once, to the product.
  2. Replacing g(a−x)g(a - x) by g(x)g(x)⁠. The condition on gg is g(a−x)=4−g(x)g(a - x) = 4 - g(x)⁠, not symmetry.
  3. Checking the identity with one example and calling it proved. Examples only check; the proof is Steps 1 to 4, valid for every ff⁠, gg and aa⁠.
What to take away
  1. General form: if f(a−x)=f(x)f(a - x) = f(x) and g(x)+g(a−x)=kg(x) + g(a - x) = k⁠, then ∫0afg dx=k2∫0af dx\int_0^a fg\,dx = \frac{k}{2}\int_0^a f\,dx⁠.
  2. Q12 is the case a=πa = \pi⁠, g(x)=xg(x) = x (so k=πk = \pi⁠) and f(x)=11+sin⁡xf(x) = \frac{1}{1 + \sin x}⁠; so is Example 30 with f(x)=sin⁡x1+cos⁡2xf(x) = \frac{\sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x}⁠.

Every fact used, and where it comes from

FactUsed inSource
Integrands must be continuous on [0,a][0, a]Step 1Remark (iv) after Theorem 2, Section 7.8.3
P4: ∫0ah(x) dx=∫0ah(a−x) dx\int_0^a h(x)\,dx = \int_0^a h(a-x)\,dxStep 2Section 7.10, property P4 (Lesson: properties)
Linearity of the integralStep 3Section 7.2.1, Properties (III) and (IV)
∫sin⁡xcos⁡x dx\int\sin x\cos x\,dx by substitutionStep 5Section 7.3.1
Integration by partsStep 6Section 7.6
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