Q12: Find in
If , then ‘’ is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Why?
As it stands, has no standard integral. Writing the numerator 1 as splits it into 1, which is easy, and a fraction whose numerator is almost the derivative of its denominator.
Split the fraction into two, over the same denominator:
Then .
Putting , :
Why?
The derivative of is , so . Then use the standard integral
Comparing with (here ), .
Why?
is always positive, so and the two forms match term by term.
Watch out: the minus sign is already written in the question, so , not as in (A).
Answer: (D)
Chapter 7, Integrals: Integration by substitution.
Question type: Substitution
How to spot it: click to see
Type 2. Substitution: when the derivative is hiding in the question
Spot it: a function and its derivative both appear, like and , or and .
Here: Writing the 1 on top as leaves minus , where the top is half the derivative of the bottom. So put , which gives and .
Tell us if something on this page is wrong or unclear. Send feedback on this question →
Integrals in past papers: question 21 of 46 · see them all